NR 510 Week 8 Final Exam questions and answers

1. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
   • Answer: “Fatigue.”
2. Where are Langerhans cells found?
   • Answer: “In the epidermis.”
3. An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
   • Answer: “Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).”
4. Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?
   • Answer: “Fungal infections are often localized and can be treated with antifungal medications.”
5. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
   • Answer: “Type I hypersensitivity reaction.”
6. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
   • Answer: “Refractory period.”
7. Which renal change is found in older adults?
   • Answer: “Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR).”
8. Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process?
   • Answer: “A genetic mutation in the CFTR gene.”
9. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
   • Answer: “Obesity.”
10. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
    • Answer: “Human papillomavirus (HPV).”
11. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
    • Answer: “Decreased elasticity of the lungs.”
12. Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
    • Answer: “Sarcoma.”
13. Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
    • Answer: “Neutrophils.”
14. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
    • Answer: “A characteristic continuous murmur.”
15. Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
    • Answer: “Fungi.”
16. During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
    • Answer: “Due to increased lymphocyte proliferation and accumulation of immune cells.”
17. Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
    • Answer: “Cortisol.”
18. The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the:
    • Answer: “Renal cortex.”
19. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
    • Answer: “Bone marrow.”
20. Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
    • Answer: “Human papillomavirus (HPV).”
21. Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children?
    • Answer: “Vitamin C.”
22. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells?
    • Answer: “Platelets.”
23. An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
    • Answer: “Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).”
24. The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
    • Answer: “6 months of age.”
25. What is the function of erythrocytes?
    • Answer: “To transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.”
26. Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?
    • Answer: “Dopamine.”
27. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
    • Answer: “Breast and ovarian cancer.”
28. Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep?
    • Answer: “Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep.”
29. Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
    • Answer: “An elderly individual with multiple chronic medical conditions.”
30. Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve?
    • Answer: “Intussusception.”
31. The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
    • Answer: “IgA.”
32. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain?
    • Answer: “Frontal lobe.”
33. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
    • Answer: “Group A Streptococcus.”
34. How can glaucoma cause blindness?
    • Answer: “By damaging the optic nerve due to increased intraocular pressure.”
35. Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:
    • Answer: “Sodium.”
36. How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
    • Answer: “By increasing metabolic rate and inducing heat production.”
37. Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease?
    • Answer: “Pain and swelling over the tibial tuberosity.”
38. Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss?
    • Answer: “Evaporation.”
39. Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?
    • Answer: “Men produce testosterone continuously, while women have cyclical hormone production.”
40. Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
    • Answer: “Features of Down syndrome, including intellectual disability and distinct facial characteristics.”
41. What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?
    • Answer: “To lubricate the vaginal opening.”
42. What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
    • Answer: “Turner syndrome.”
43. The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
    • Answer: “Cortisol.”
44. The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
    • Answer: “Epidemiology.”
45. Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?
    • Answer: “Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).”
46. What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
    • Answer: “Breast development.”
47. What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?
    • Answer: “Hypospadias.”
48. The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
    • Answer: “Monosomy.”
49. Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
    • Answer: “Increasing insulin resistance.”
50. In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than how many degrees result in decreased pulmonary function?
    • Answer: “50 degrees.”
51. The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
    • Answer: “Osteomalacia.”
52. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive?
    • Answer: “Stress fracture.”
53. It is true that myasthenia gravis:
    • Answer: “Is an autoimmune disorder that affects neuromuscular junctions.”
54. Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
    • Answer: “Widespread musculoskeletal pain and fatigue.”
55. Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance?
    • Answer: “Osmotic diarrhea.”
56. Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
    • Answer: “Increased vaginal acidity.”
57. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
    • Answer: “Increased fiber intake.”
58. Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
    • Answer: “Calcium ions.”
59. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more severe and occurs after almost every feeding. Which disorder should be suspected?
    • Answer: “Pyloric stenosis.”
60. Which type of immune response involves antibodies and is typically against extracellular pathogens?
    • Answer: “Humoral immune response.”
61. The most common cause of acute gastroenteritis in children is:
    • Answer: “Rotavirus.”
62. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood glucose levels?
    • Answer: “Insulin.”
63. What is the common name for a herniated disc in the lumbar region?
    • Answer: “Lumbar disc herniation.”
64. Which syndrome is characterized by hyperpigmented macules and cafe-au-lait spots?
    • Answer: “Neurofibromatosis type 1.”
65. Which condition is an inherited disorder of connective tissue characterized by long limbs, tall stature, and cardiovascular abnormalities?
    • Answer: “Marfan syndrome.”
66. A patient presents with jaundice, dark urine, and a positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen. Which diagnosis is most likely?
    • Answer: “Hepatitis B infection.”
67. Which structure in the brain is primarily responsible for regulating temperature, hunger, and thirst?
    • Answer: “Hypothalamus.”
68. What term describes the difficulty in breathing that results from obstruction of airflow through the airways?
    • Answer: “Dyspnea.”
69. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in allergic asthma?
    • Answer: “Type I hypersensitivity.”
70. A 5-year-old child presents with a history of frequent ear infections and a persistent cough. Physical examination reveals nasal congestion and swelling of the adenoids. Which condition is most likely present?
    • Answer: “Adenoid hypertrophy.”
71. Which type of joint allows for the most range of motion?
    • Answer: “Ball-and-socket joint.”
72. What condition is characterized by a deficiency in the enzyme that breaks down the amino acid phenylalanine, leading to developmental delays and intellectual disabilities?
    • Answer: “Phenylketonuria (PKU).”
73. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with progressive vision loss and signs of retinal hemorrhages. Which diagnosis is likely?
    • Answer: “Diabetic retinopathy.”
74. Which term describes the condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac?
    • Answer: “Pericardial effusion.”
75. Which chronic respiratory condition is characterized by irreversible airway obstruction and is commonly associated with smoking?
    • Answer: “Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).”