NR NR601 final study guide questions

28 August 2024

NR NR601 final study guide questions

  1. Contraindication for testosterone therapy injection, all EXCEPT:
    • Liver disease
    • Mercury allergy
    • Latex allergy (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Prostate cancer
  2. If the testosterone level is below 300, what is the next step?
    • Order a serum prolactin level (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Initiate testosterone therapy
    • Repeat the level in 1 month
    • Refer to urologist
  3. Which UI is associated with UTI, vaginitis, bladder stones, and tumors?
    • Urge (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Stress
    • Functional
    • Overflow
  4. Which FSH value is consistent with complete cessation of ovarian function?
    • Less than 10
    • 10-25
    • 25-35
    • Greater than 40 (CORRECT ANSWER)
  5. Diabetes is one of the leading causes of which disease?
    • Chronic lung disease
    • Kidney failure (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Disability
    • Cardiac death
  6. Which antihypertensive medication can be used to treat hot flashes in menopause?
    • Labatelol
    • Clonidine (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Hydrochlorothiazide
    • Hydralazine
  7. What is the least diabetogenic statin?
    • Rosuvastatin
    • Simvastatin
    • Atorvastatin
    • Pravastatin (CORRECT ANSWER)
  8. Bence Jones proteins found in a urinalysis may be indicative of:
    • Leukemia
    • Lymphosarcoma
    • Multiple myeloma (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • All of the above
  9. What is the first line medication for a new type 2 diabetic?
    • Novolog
    • Penicillin
    • Metformin (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Glyburide
  10. Protein on a urinalysis usually has a renal pathology, specific to which renal structure?
    • Glomerulus (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Renal cortex
    • Medulla
    • Nephron
  11. What is the hA1C goal for diabetic patients with complex health status (multiple chronic conditions)?
    • <7.5
    • <8.0 (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • <8.5
    • <9
  12. Type 2 diabetes factors include?
    • Polycystic
    • Obesity (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Hypotension
    • Liver disease
  13. Gastric bypass surgery can be performed on a patient with a BMI of:
    • 20-25
    • 40 (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 30-34
    • 25-29
  14. Signs of indicative abuse include all EXCEPT:
    • Weight Gain
    • Poor Hygiene (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Lack of control
    • Increase interest in daily activities
  15. What age-related changes do NOT affect urologic functioning?
    • Decreased bladder capacity
    • Normal aging (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Increased PVR urine volume
    • Increased urethral resistance
  16. Painful, irregular-shaped, deep red ulcers with a red halo and undermined edges. Which STD is most likely?
    • Syphilis
    • HSV (Herpes)
    • Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi) (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Molluscum contagiosum (Pox virus)
  17. What is the average BG level of an HbA1C of 9.5?
    • 226 (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 216
    • 197
    • 240
  18. Which STI increases in those over the age of 50 years old?
    • Syphilis
    • HSV (Herpes)
    • HIV (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Gonorrhea
  19. Which type of incontinence is a result of bladder hypermobility?
    • Urge
    • Overflow
    • Stress (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Functional
  20. What test can detect interstitial cystitis?
    • Potassium sensitivity (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Sodium sensitivity
    • CBC
    • Bladder ultrasound
  21. What is the first line opioid for dyspnea?
    • Percocet
    • Morphine (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Tramadol
    • Tylenol
  22. A male complains of dysuria. Urinalysis is positive for nitrates, leukocyte esterase, and bacteria. Which medication should be given?
    • Doxycycline X 7 days
    • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole X 7-10 days (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Ciprofloxacin X 3 days
    • Nitrofurantoin X 14 days
  23. Which UI is associated with UTI, vaginitis, bladder stones, and tumors? Urge; Stress (CORRECT ANSWER); Functional; Overflow
  24. Which of the following is not part of the SPIKES protocol?
    • Setting
    • Planning (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Strategy
    • Invitation
  25. What is a common characteristic of dysuria-pyuria syndrome (acute urethral syndrome)?
    • Painful urination
    • WBCs on microscopic UA
    • Absence of positive bacterial culture
    • All of the above (CORRECT ANSWER)
  26. Contraindication for testosterone therapy injection, all EXCEPT:
    • Liver disease
    • Mercury allergy (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Latex allergy
    • Prostate cancer
  27. If the testosterone level is below 300, what is the next step?
    • Order a serum prolactin level (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Initiate testosterone therapy
    • Repeat the level in 1 month
    • Refer to urologist
  28. All of the following labs should be ordered in a patient with complaints of ED EXCEPT:
    • Lipid profile
    • CMP
    • TSH (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Fasting blood sugar
  29. Risk factors for urinary incontinence include:
    • Age
    • Residing in a long-term care setting
    • Cognitive impairment
    • Female gender
    • All of the above (CORRECT ANSWER)
  30. A patient with impaired glucose intolerance is at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes within how many years of onset?
    • 2 to 5 years
    • 5 to 10 years (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 3 to 6 years
    • Within 1 year
  31. What is the most commonly identified infectious agent or toxic insult in a person with a genetic predisposition for DM1?
    • Herpes
    • Congenital Rubella (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Chickenpox
    • MMR vaccine while pregnant
  32. All are contraindications of Metformin except:
    • Stroke
    • MI
    • Renal disease (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Septicemia
  33. When should insulin therapy begin in the management of DM2?
    • Initially
    • If A1C is >9.0 and symptomatic (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • If A1C is >8% and asymptomatic
    • Patients with DM2 do not require insulin therapy
  34. Which A1C indicates strong glycemic control?
    • 6%
    • <7% (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 8.5%
    • 5.7%
  35. A patient who is experiencing menopausal symptoms and has a uterus can be treated with?
    • Estrogen-only therapy
    • Estrogen plus progestin (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Neither are recommended
    • Either one can be used
  36. Viagra: How long after injection does it last?
    • 15-45 minutes
    • 30-60 minutes
    • 60-90 minutes (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 90-120 minutes
  37. Viagra: How often can it be used?
    • Every 24 hours, 2-3 times/week
    • Every 24 hours, 4-5 times/week (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Every 12 hours, 2-3 times/week
    • Every 12 hours, 4-5 times/week
  38. The transdermal testosterone gel or solution (AndroGel) can be applied to?
    • Scrotum
    • Axillary (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Upper arm
    • B&C (CORRECT ANSWER)
  39. Testosterone implantable pellets (Testopel) produce steady blood levels if implanted into the subcutaneous tissue:
    • Monthly
    • Weekly
    • Every 5-6 months (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Every 3-4 months
  40. Which is true regarding nitrates and Viagra (Sildenafil)?
    • Nitrates are always contraindicated with Viagra (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Can give nitrates within 12 hours of taking Viagra
    • Must wait 24 hours after taking Viagra to give nitrates
    • There are no restrictions when giving the 2 medications
  41. A patient presents with complaints of changes in behavior (socially inappropriate, easily frustrated, impulsive), language dysfunction, and difficulty reading and writing. Which type of dementia would you suspect? Lewy Body/Parkinson’s; Frontotemporal lobe/Pick’s Disease (CORRECT ANSWER); Vascular Dementia; Mixed Dementia
  42. Which is true regarding early onset dementia?
    • It affects those 65 and younger
    • It affects those 55 and younger
    • It is usually familial
    • A & C (CORRECT ANSWER)
  43. Which ethnic group is at the highest risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease?
    • African American
    • Caucasian
    • Hispanic
    • A and C (CORRECT ANSWER)
  44. Which one is not correct with the incontinence mnemonic DRIP?
    • Diabetes (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Polyuria
    • Restricted mobility
    • Infection
  45. Poor judgment and decisions first present in which phase of Alzheimer’s disease?
    • Preclinical
    • Mild-moderate (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Severe
    • None of the above
  46. Which is true regarding the onset and half-life of codeine?
    • Onset: 30 minutes, HL: 2-4 hrs
    • Onset: 15 minutes, HL: 4-6 hrs
    • Onset: 60 minutes, HL: 4-6 hrs (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Onset: 60 minutes, HL: 2-4 hrs
  47. Dilaudid is:
    • 5 times more potent than Morphine
    • 2 times more potent than Morphine
    • Half as potent as Morphine
    • 3 times more potent than Morphine (CORRECT ANSWER)
  48. Which medication is most appropriate for very severe, intractable pain?
    • Codeine
    • Morphine
    • Fentanyl (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Hydrocodone
  49. Pain arising from the muscles, joints, and cutaneous tissue is?
    • Visceral pain
    • Somatic pain (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Neuropathic pain
    • None of the above
  50. All of these medications can be used for neuropathic pain EXCEPT?
    • Gabapentin
    • Methadone (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • Amitriptyline
    • All are correct
  51. In AD, Preclinical changes in the brain can begin in _________ years before symptoms present.
    • 2-5
    • 10-20 (CORRECT ANSWER)
    • 1
    • 5-10
  52. Women are more at risk for which type of abuse?
    • Neglect
    • Physical
    • Sexual
    • Both B & C (CORRECT ANSWER)
  53. Those with cognitive function are more at risk for which type of abuse?
    • Exploitation
    • Sexual
    • Abandonment
    • Physical (CORRECT ANSWER)