NR NR507 Week 4 Midterm Questions and Answers
26 August 2024NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Questions and Answers
Question 1: Hypertension (high blood pressure) will have its most immediate effect on:
- Answer: The cardiovascular system, particularly the arteries, leading to increased risk of atherosclerosis and left ventricular hypertrophy.
Question 2: Mature, circulating RBCs lack endoplasmic reticulum. Without these structures, RBCs are completely unable to synthesize any:
- Answer: Proteins.
Question 3: Which of the following would indicate that a client with chronic bronchitis has developed secondary polycythemia vera?
- Answer: An elevated hematocrit level.
Question 4: The amount of blood the heart can hold is referred to as:
- Answer: End-diastolic volume.
Question 5: Glomerulonephritis is associated with a(n):
- Answer: Inflammatory response in the glomeruli, often leading to hematuria, proteinuria, and decreased glomerular filtration rate.
Question 6: Which of the following would not typically be present in a client with asthma?
- Answer: Hypernatremia.
Question 7: A prolonged episode of tachycardia will result in:
- Answer: Decreased ventricular filling time, potentially leading to reduced cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Question 8: Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion differ in that:
- Answer: Tubular reabsorption involves the movement of substances from the filtrate back into the blood, while tubular secretion involves the movement of substances from the blood into the filtrate.
Question 9: After erythrocytes have completed their lifespan, they are removed by macrophages mainly in the:
- Answer: Spleen.
Question 10: Alveolar hyperinflation occurs in asthma and chronic bronchitis as the result of:
- Answer: Air trapping due to obstruction of airflow and loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli.
Question 11: The primary site of damage in the nephron due to ischemic conditions is the:
- Answer: Proximal tubule.
Question 12: The movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body tissues and cells describes the process of:
- Answer: Perfusion.
Question 13: A 5-year-old female presents with frequent urinary tract infections. Imaging studies indicate a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters. This is indicative of:
- Answer: Vesicoureteral reflux.
Question 14: A 30-year-old client who had a gastrectomy procedure 1 year ago is most at risk for the development of:
- Answer: Pernicious anemia due to a deficiency of intrinsic factor leading to impaired vitamin B12 absorption.
Question 15: A deficiency of intrinsic factor (IF) will most likely result in:
- Answer: Pernicious anemia.
Question 16: During ventricular systole:
- Answer: The ventricles contract, pumping blood into the aorta and pulmonary arteries.
Question 17: A deficiency of transferrin is most likely to result in:
- Answer: Iron deficiency anemia.
Question 18: The primary source of erythropoietin is the:
- Answer: Kidneys.
Question 19: Which of the following is not a condition associated with renal failure?
- Answer: Hyperthyroidism.
Question 20: A 25-year-old female presents with frequent complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This is referred to as:
- Answer: Obstructive uropathy.
Question 21: Contractility of cardiac muscle is directly dependent on the level of:
- Answer: Calcium ions.
Question 22: Appropriate management of progressive renal failure typically includes:
- Answer: Dialysis or kidney transplantation, along with management of hypertension, electrolyte imbalances, and fluid overload.
Question 23: In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also carries nitric oxide (NO). NO is important for:
- Answer: Vasodilation and regulation of blood flow.
Question 24: Which equation correctly represents cardiac output (CO)?
- Answer: CO = Stroke Volume (SV) × Heart Rate (HR).
Question 25: Which of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood between the heart and lungs?
- Answer: Blood flows from the right ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries and returns to the left atrium via the pulmonary veins.
Question 26: Blood (hydrostatic) pressure is most important for the process of:
- Answer: Filtration in the capillaries.
Question 27: Preload can increase by all the following except:
- Answer: Increased heart rate (which actually decreases preload due to reduced filling time).
Question 28: Cardiac tamponade:
- Answer: Results in the compression of the heart due to fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.
Question 29: The lamina propria area of the bronchioles plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis because this is where:
- Answer: Inflammatory cells and mediators accumulate, leading to bronchial wall thickening and obstruction.
Question 30: Which of the following will occur when calcium binds to troponin?
- Answer: It facilitates the interaction of actin and myosin, leading to muscle contraction.
Question 31: The average red blood cell lifespan is approximately:
- Answer: 120 days.
Question 32: The correct definition of afterload is:
- Answer: The resistance the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood into the systemic circulation.
Question 33: An accident victim transfused with the incorrect blood type is at most risk for the development of:
- Answer: Hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Question 34: A client experiencing congestive heart failure (CHF) would experience the following sequence of events:
- Answer: Decreased cardiac output → Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) → Fluid retention and increased preload → Worsening heart failure.
Question 35: The condition most associated with a history of seasonal and/or chronic allergies is:
- Answer: Allergic rhinitis.
Question 36: Preload refers specifically to:
- Answer: The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
Question 37: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) inhibitors work by:
- Answer: Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure.
Question 38: Closure of the semilunar valves (SLV) occurs during:
- Answer: The beginning of diastole, as the ventricles relax.
Question 39: A 78-year-old patient is scheduled for an imaging procedure using contrast dye. Although rare, you know that he may be at risk for contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) because of his history of:
- Answer: Chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Question 40: The normal primary site of hematopoiesis in the adult is:
- Answer: The bone marrow.
Question 41: A 78-year-old male diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is at increased risk for the development of:
- Answer: Urinary retention and possible urinary tract infections.
Question 42: Afterload can be increased by all the following except:
- Answer: Hypotension (which would decrease afterload).
Question 43: The blood disorders sickle-cell anemia and thalassemia are:
- Answer: Genetic disorders that affect hemoglobin synthesis.
Question 44: Treatment for asthma includes anticholinergic drugs. The mechanism of action for the medication is to:
- Answer: Block the muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation.
Question 45: A client who is 2 days post-partum is most at risk for the development of:
- Answer: Postpartum hemorrhage or deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Question 46: A client with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience:
- Answer: Chronic cough, mucus production, and dyspnea on exertion.
Question 47: An aortic semilunar valve stenosis would have the most immediate effect by:
- Answer: Increasing afterload on the left ventricle, leading to left ventricular hypertrophy.
Question 48: In the healthy heart, the response to an increase in preload is for stroke volume to:
- Answer: Increase, according to the Frank-Starling law of the heart.
Question 49: Decreased contractility can be caused by all the following except:
- Answer: Increased sympathetic stimulation (which actually increases contractility).
Question 50: Cor pulmonale refers to:
- Answer: Right-sided heart failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension or chronic lung disease.