Question 1: A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:

• Answer: A Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies, leading to anaphylaxis.

Question 2: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by:

• Answer: Persistent inflammation of the bronchi, leading to mucus hypersecretion, airway obstruction, and recurrent respiratory infections.

Question 3: A 6-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?

• Answer: Neutrophils, as they are the first line of defense against bacterial infections.

Question 4: A 52-year-old male is diagnosed with urinary tract obstruction. While designing the treatment plan, the nurse realizes that the patient is likely to have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:

• Answer: Increased pressure within the urinary tract due to the obstruction, leading to kidney damage.

Question 5: Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells?

• Answer: Erythropoietin.

Question 6: A 4-year-old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?

• Answer: Severe proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema.

Question 7: During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities?

• Answer: Early embryonic development.

Question 8: Under most circumstances, increased work of breathing results in:

• Answer: Increased energy expenditure and potential respiratory muscle fatigue.

Question 9: The renin-angiotensin system will be activated by:

• Answer: A decrease in blood pressure or blood volume, signaling the kidneys to release renin.

Question 10: A nurse realizes glucose will appear in the urine when:

• Answer: Blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold, typically around 180 mg/dL, leading to glycosuria.

Question 11: The FNP is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the FNP should give?

• Answer: Chronic hepatitis leading to liver cancer.

Question 12: Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine?

• Answer: Juxtamedullary nephrons.

Question 13: A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?

• Answer: A decreased CD4+ T-cell count.

Question 14: What type of phagocytic cell lies between the layers of the renal capillaries?

• Answer: Mesangial cells.

Question 15: A 35-year-old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

• Answer: Hypokalemia.

Question 16: The movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body tissues and cells describes the process of:

• Answer: Perfusion.

Question 17: Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of lungs at rest?

• Answer: Functional residual capacity.

Question 18: Upon examination of the male infant, it is observed that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as:

• Answer: Hypospadias.

Question 19: If the FNP wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?

• Answer: Glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

Question 20: A 54-year-old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of:

• Answer: Respiratory acidosis.

Question 21: A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• Answer: DiGeorge syndrome.

Question 22: When the FNP is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:

• Answer: The glomerular filtration barrier normally prevents plasma proteins from entering the urine.

Question 23: A 55-year-old female reports urinary retention. Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?

• Answer: Potential development of hydronephrosis and kidney damage.

Question 24: The lamina propria area of the bronchioles plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis because this is where:

• Answer: Inflammatory cells and mediators accumulate, leading to bronchial wall thickening and mucus hypersecretion.

Question 25: Pulmonary function tests reveal that an 80-year-old dyspneic patient has an increase in residual volume. The FNP suspects the most likely cause of the increased residual volume is ____ in lung compliance.

• Answer: An increase in lung compliance, typically seen in emphysema.

Question 26: The nurse practitioner would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a:

• Answer: Genetic mutation affecting immune system development.

Question 27: Carbon dioxide is mainly transported in the blood as:

• Answer: Bicarbonate ion (HCO3-).

Question 28: The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly related to the:

• Answer: Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.

Question 29: When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers?

• Answer: DNA methylation patterns.

Question 30: Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child’s diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?

• Answer: Hematuria, proteinuria, and hypertension.

Question 31: When a staff member asks which of the following substances is actively secreted by the renal tubules, what is the FNP’s best response?

• Answer: Potassium ions (K+).

Question 32: A client with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience:

• Answer: Chronic cough with sputum production and wheezing.

Question 33: An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?

• Answer: Jaundice and a positive direct Coombs test.

Question 34: During inspiration, muscular contraction of the diaphragm causes air to move into the lung. The mechanism that drives air movement during inspiration results from:

• Answer: A decrease in intrathoracic pressure, leading to airflow into the lungs.

Question 35: A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Tests reveal the deposition of immunoglobulin IgA in the glomerular capillaries. The nurse will monitor for recurrent:

• Answer: Hematuria and possible kidney dysfunction.

Question 36: When the FNP discusses the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:

• Answer: Corpuscle.

Question 37: Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system?

• Answer: Bicarbonate-carbonic acid pair.

Question 38: The condition most associated with a history of seasonal and/or chronic allergies is:

• Answer: Allergic rhinitis.

Question 39: A 15-year-old presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever and is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

• Answer: Post-streptococcal infection leading to immune complex deposition.

Question 40: Treatment for asthma includes anticholinergic drugs. The mechanism of action for these medications is to:

• Answer: Block muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation.

Question 41: A 60-year-old with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema. Assessment shows an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to:

• Answer: Hyperinflation of the lungs leading to a barrel chest appearance.

Question 42: In a patient with acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift:

• Answer: To the right, indicating decreased oxygen affinity and increased oxygen release to tissues.

Question 43: Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which hormone?

• Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Question 44: The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for:

• Answer: Reabsorption of water.

Question 45: A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

• Answer: Antiretroviral therapy (ART).

Question 46: Where does the majority of sodium reabsorption take place?

• Answer: In the proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 47: When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the FNP use?

• Answer: Nephron.

Question 48: What characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome is not a characteristic of Angelman syndrome?

• Answer: Hyperphagia leading to obesity is seen in Prader-Willi syndrome but not in Angelman syndrome.

Question 49: Treatment for asthma included anticholinergic drugs. The mechanism of action for the medication is to:

• Answer: Inhibit the action of acetylcholine on muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation.

Question 50: An aortic semilunar valve stenosis would have the most immediate effect by:

• Answer: Increasing afterload on the left ventricle, potentially leading to left ventricular hypertrophy.